8011 TEST DUMPS: CREDIT AND COUNTERPARTY MANAGER (CCRM) CERTIFICATE EXAM - 8011 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS

8011 Test Dumps: Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam - 8011 Actual Exam Questions

8011 Test Dumps: Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam - 8011 Actual Exam Questions

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Tags: Free 8011 Vce Dumps, Latest 8011 Exam Guide, 8011 PDF Dumps Files, 8011 Valid Dumps Questions, 8011 Vce File

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PRMIA 8011 Exam is intended for professionals who are involved in credit and counterparty risk management, such as credit analysts, portfolio managers, risk managers, traders, and regulators. It is also suitable for professionals who are interested in pursuing a career in credit risk management or who are looking to enhance their existing skills and knowledge.

PRMIA 8011 Certification Exam is a valuable credential for professionals in the field of credit and counterparty risk management. It can help individuals demonstrate their knowledge and expertise, which can lead to new job opportunities, promotions, and other career advancement opportunities. If you are interested in pursuing this certification, it is important to prepare thoroughly and take the time to study the exam material carefully.

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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q284-Q289):

NEW QUESTION # 284
Which of the following is NOT true in respect of bilateral close out netting:

  • A. All transactions are immediately closed out upon the occurrence of a credit event for either of the counterparties
  • B. All transactions are netted against each other
  • C. The net amount due is immediately receivable or payable
  • D. Transactions are separated by transaction type and immediately settled separately at each's replacement value

Answer: D

Explanation:
Choice 'b', Choice 'c' and Choice 'a' correctly describe a bilateral close out netting as recommended by the ISDA. However Choice 'd' is not correct as it suggests individual settlement of transactions without netting which is the whole point of bilateral close out netting.


NEW QUESTION # 285
If the default hazard rate for a company is 10%, and the spread on its bonds over the risk free rate is 800 bps, what is the expected recovery rate?

  • A. 8.00%
  • B. 40.00%
  • C. 20.00%
  • D. 0.00%

Answer: C

Explanation:
The recovery rate, the default hazard rate (also called the average default intensity) and the spread on debt are linked by the equation Hazard Rate = Spread/(1 - Recovery Rate). Therefore, the recovery rate implicit in the given data is = 1 - 8%/10% = 20%.


NEW QUESTION # 286
A bullet bond and an amortizing loan are issued at the same time with the same maturity and with the same principal. Which of these would have a greater credit exposure halfway through their life?

  • A. The bullet bond
  • B. Indeterminate with the given information
  • C. The amortizing loan
  • D. They would have identical exposure half way through their lives

Answer: A

Explanation:
A bullet bond is a bond that pays coupons covering interest during the life of the bond and the principal at maturity. An amortizing loan pays the interest as well as a part of the principal with every payment.
Therefore, the exposure of the amortizing loan continually reduces, and approaches zero towards the end of its life. The bullet bond will always have a higher exposure at any time during its life when compared to an equivalent amortizing loan. Hence Choice 'd' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 287
A risk analyst analyzing the positions for a proprietary trading desk determines that the combined annual variance of the desk's positions is 0.16. The value of the portfolio is $240m. What is the 10-day stand alone VaR in dollars for the desk at a confidence level of 95%? Assume 250 trading days in a year.

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
The z value at the 95% confidence level is 1.64. Since the variance is 0.16, the annual volatility is 40%.
Therefore the daily volatility is 40% x #10/250 = 8%. The VaR therefore is 8% x 1.64 x $240m = $31,488,000


NEW QUESTION # 288
If # and # are the expected rate of return and volatility of an asset whose prices are log-normally distributed, and # a random drawing from a standard normal distribution, we can simulate the asset's returns using the expressions:

  • A. # / #.#
  • B. # + #.#
  • C. -# + #.#
  • D. # - #.#

Answer: B

Explanation:
A standard model for representing asset returns in finance is the Geometric Brownian Motion process, and returns according to this model can be estimated by the expression given in Choice 'b'. Note that prices according to this model are log-normally distributed, and returns are normally distributed.


NEW QUESTION # 289
......

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